Network+ Final Exam Review - Part 3
Chapters 8 -11
1. Clients
are able to exchange signals with satellites as long as they have a ____ path.
a. view
b. directional
c. proprietary
d. line-of-sight
2. 802.11b and g signals can extend a maximum of
____________________ feet and still deliver data reliably.
330
3. ____________________ means that satellites
orbit the Earth at the same rate as the Earth turns.
GEO
4. If intermittent and difficult-to-diagnose
wireless communication errors occur, ____ might be the culprit.
a. incorrect encryption
b. incorrect antenna placement
c. SSID mismatch
d. interference
5. WiMAX is defined by the IEEE 802.11
standard.
True
False
6. Wireless
signals experience attenuation.
True
False
7. Most satellites circle the Earth ____ miles above the equator in a geosynchronous
orbit.
a. 100
b. 1240
c. 6,000
d. 22,300
8. ____ satellites are the type used by the most
popular satellite data service providers.
a. Low earth orbiting
b. Transponder
c. Medium earth orbiting
d. Geosynchronous earth orbiting
9. The average geographic range for an 802.11a
antenna is ____ meters.
a. 20
b. 100
c. 330
d. 600
10. ____ is a significant problem for wireless
communications because the atmosphere is saturated with electromagnetic waves.
a. Interference
b. Attenuation
c. Diffraction
d. Fading
11. The ____________________ is a unique character
string used to identify an access point.
SSID
12. An
802.11g antenna has a geographic range of ____ meters.
a. 20
b. 100
c. 300
d. 330
13. Which
satellites transmit and receive signals in the 12 to 18 GHz band?
a. Ku-
b. S-
c. L-
d. Ka-
14. In ____ scanning, the station transmits a
special frame, known as a probe, on all available channels within its frequency
range.
a. fixed
b. passive
c. active
d. open
15. In the case of connecting two WLANs, access
points could be as far as ____ feet apart.
a. 500
b. 800
c. 1000
d. 1200
16. ____ may use either the 2.4-GHz or 5-GHz
frequency range.
a. 802.11a
b. 802.11b
c. 802.11g
d. 802.11n
17. A _________ assesses client requirements,
facility characteristics, and coverage areas to determine an access point
arrangement that will ensure reliable wireless connectivity within a given
area.
site survey
18. The use of multiple frequencies to
transmit a signal is known as ____________________ technology.
Spread-spectrum
19. ____ is an 802.11n feature that allows two
adjacent 20-MHz channels to be combined to make a 40-MHz channel.
a. Channel bonding
b. Channel aggregation
c. Frame bonding
d. Frame
aggregation
20. An ad hoc arrangement would work well for a
WLAN with many users.
True
False
21. In
____, a wireless signal splits into secondary waves when it encounters an
obstruction.
a. bounce back
b. scattering
c. reflection
d. diffraction
22. Spread
spectrum is a popular way of making wireless transmissions more secure.
True
False
23. ____ is a command-line function for viewing
and setting wireless interface parameters and it is common to nearly all
versions of Linux and UNIX.
a. config
b.
ivconfig
c. iwconfig
d. ipconfig
24. In ____ wireless systems, the transmitting
antenna focuses its energy directly toward the receiving antenna which results
in a point-to-point link.
a. open
b. variable
c. mobile
d. fixed
25. To
establish a satellite Internet connection, each subscriber must have a ____.
a. dish pathway
b. dish antenna
c. line-of-sight antenna
d. source pathway
26. POP3’s design makes it best suited to users who
retrieve their mail from the same workstation all the time.
a. True
b. False
27. POP3 (Post Office Protocol, version 3) relies on TCP
and operates over port ____.
a.
25
b.
11
c.
110
d.
250
28. In CIDR, conventional network class distinctions do
not exist.
a. True
b. False
29. The ____ gateway is the gateway that first interprets
its outbound requests to other subnets, and then interprets its inbound
requests from other subnets.
a.
default
b.
Internet
c.
proxy
d.
core
30. The MIME
standard replaces SMTP.
a. True
b. False
31. In ____ addressing, the network information portion
of an IPv4 address is limited to the first 8 bits in a Class A address.
a.
limited
b.
stateful
c.
classful
d.
subnet
32. Because the
octets equal to 0 and 255 are ____, only the numbers 1 through 254 can be used
for host information in an IPv4 address.
a.
unobtainable
b.
open for general use
c.
out-of-range
d.
reserved
33. The combination of additional bits used for subnet
information plus the existing network ID is known as the ____________________.
extended
network prefix
34. When using classful IPv4 addressing, a network ID
always ends with an octet of ____.
a.
0
b.
00000000
c.
1
d.
255
35. ____________________ is the protocol
responsible for moving messages from one mail server to another over
TCP/IP-based networks.
SMTP
36. A class ____ network class is reserved for special
purposes.
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
37. A program similar to mtr, ____, is available as a
command-line utility in Windows operating systems.
a.
route
b.
nbstat
c.
pathping
d.
dig
38. The result from ANDing 11001111 with 10010001 is
____.
a.
10010001
b.
00000001
c.
11001111
d.
10000001
39. The backbone are called ____________________
gateways.
core
40. In classful addressing, the Class B IPv4 address
network ID is located in the ____.
a.
first 16 bits
b.
last 16 bits
c.
first 8 bits
d.
last 8 bits
41. The gateways that make up the Internet backbone are
called ____ gateways.
a.
proxy
b.
Internet
c.
default
d.
core
42. In classful addressing, Class C IPv4 address host
information is located in the ____.
a.
last 8 bits
b.
first 8 bits
c.
last 16 bits
d.
first 16 bits
43. IMAP4 servers require less storage space and usually
more processing resources than POP servers do.
a. True
b. False
44. CIDR notation takes the form of the network ID
followed by a(n) ____, followed by the number of bits that are used for the
extended network prefix.
a.
underscore ( _ )
b.
forward slash ( / )
c.
backward slash ( \ )
d.
dash ( - )
45. IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is a mail
retrieval protocol that was developed as a more sophisticated alternative to
____.
a.
SMTP
b.
MIME
c.
POP3
d.
POP
46. On a network using TCP/IP, some nodes may use
multiple IP addresses.
a. True
b. False
47. An example of a popular client email software is
____.
a.
Microsoft Exchange Server
b.
Sendmail
c.
Microsoft Outlook
d.
MIME
48. An administrator can discover the host name assigned
to a client by using the ____ utility.
a.
host
b.
hostname
c.
nbstat
d.
nslookup
49. The ____ utility allows you to view a host’s routing
table.
a.
dig
b.
route
c.
pathping
d.
nbstat
50. Within a classful addressing subnet mask, the ____
bits indicate that corresponding bits in an IPv4 address contain network
information.
a.
0
b.
1
c.
first eight
d.
last eight
51. ____ connect vNICs with a network, whether
virtual or physical.
a.
Virtual duplexers
b.
Virtual
bridges
c.
Virtual routers
d.
Virtual crossovers
52. A VM must use the same operating system,
type of CPU, storage drive, and NIC as the physical computer it resides on.
a.
True
b.
False
53. ____ is the most widely implemented
virtualization software today.
a.
Citrix
b.
VirtualBox
c.
VMware
d.
Hyper-V
54. In bridged mode, a(n)
____________________ accesses a physical network using the host machine’s NIC.
vNIC
55. The physical computer on a virtual machine is
known as a ____.
a.
guest
b.
client
c.
server
d.
host
56. A ____ uses very little hard disk space
or processing power from the workstation on which it is installed.
a.
fat client
b.
thin
client
c.
virtual client
d.
thick client
57. ____ is the remote virtual computing software
that comes with Windows client and server operating systems.
a.
Remote
Desktop
b.
Remote Windows
c.
Remote Client
d.
Remote Server
58. Upon creation, each vNIC is automatically
assigned a ____.
a.
block address
b.
switch address
c.
reference address
d.
MAC
address
59. In ____, each datagram can follow one of
many paths to reach its destination.
a.
circuit switching
b.
packet
switching
c.
line switching
d.
data switching
60. ____ desktops are desktop operating
environments hosted virtually, on a different physical computer from the one
with which the user interacts.
a.
Material
b.
Virtual
c.
Physical
d.
Guest
61. The software required to establish VPNs
is usually expensive.
a.
True
b.
False
62. Most cloud service providers use
virtualization software to supply multiple platforms to multiple users.
a.
True
b.
False
63. VPNs can be classified based on the kinds
of ____ they connect.
a.
hardware
b.
circuits
c.
endpoints
d.
software
64. ____ are wide area networks that are
logically defined over public transmission systems.
a.
Private lines
b.
VPNs
c.
Dial-up lines
d.
Leased lines
65. In a ____ VPN, tunnels connect multiple
sites on a WAN.
a.
client-to-client
b.
link-to-line
c.
site-to-client
d.
site-to-site
66. A VPN tunneling protocol operates at the
____ layer.
a.
Data
Link
b.
Network
c.
Application
d.
Session
67. In the NAT networking mode, a vNIC relies
on the ____ to act as a NAT device.
a.
reference machine
b.
guest machine
c.
management machine
d.
host
machine
68. To connect to a network, a virtual
machine requires a ____.
a.
virtual
adapter
b.
virtual switch
c.
physical switch
d.
virtual MAC address
69. ____ mode is appropriate for test networks or
if you simply need to install a different operating system on your workstation
to use a program that is incompatible with your host’s operating system.
a.
Blocked
b.
NAT
c.
Bridged
d.
Host-only
70. ____ is an open source system designed to
allow one workstation to remotely manipulate and receive screen updates from
another workstation.
a.
Remote Desktop
b.
Citrix
c.
VNC
d.
Xen
71. ____________________ refers to the flexible
provision of data storage, applications, or services to multiple clients over a
network.
Cloud
computing
72. The
software that allows you to define VMs and manages resource allocation and
sharing among them is known as a(n) ____________________.
virtual
machine manager
73. In the case of dial-up networking, the
term ____ refers to a modem.
a.
virtual connection
b.
POTS connection
c.
serial
connection
d.
physical connection
74. In a(n) ____________________ VPN,
clients, servers, and other hosts establish tunnels with a private network
using a remote access server or VPN gateway.
client-to-site
75. A(n) ____________________ is a logically
defined device that operates at the Data Link layer to pass frames between
nodes.
Virtual
switch
76. In general, information is ____________________ if it could be
used by other parties to impair an organization’s functioning, decrease
customers’ confidence, cause a financial loss, damage an organization’s status,
or give a significant advantage to a competitor.
confidential
77. A ____ firewall is a
router (or a computer installed with software that enables it to act as a
router) that examines the header of every packet of data it receives to
determine whether that type of packet is authorized to continue to its
destination.
a.
selective
b.
packet-filtering
c.
proxy
d.
gateway
78. ____ is a method of
encrypting TCP/IP transmissions above the network layer.
a.
SSL
b.
PAP
c.
PGP
d.
IPSec
79. ____ is a social
engineering practice in which a person attempts to glean access or
authentication information by posing as someone who needs that information.
a.
Hacking
b.
Cracking
c.
War driving
d.
Phishing
80. ____ protocols are the
rules that computers follow to accomplish authentication.
a.
Authority
b.
Availability
c.
Access
d.
Authentication
81. RADIUS and TACACS belong to a category of protocols known as
AAA (____).
a.
access, authorization, and accounting
b.
authentication, authorization, and authority
c.
authentication, authorization, and access
d.
authentication,
authorization, and accounting
82. A(n) ____ is a password-protected and encrypted file that
holds an individual’s identification information, including a public key.
a.
authentication file
b.
access control list
c.
digital certificate
d.
authentication certificate
83. The use of certificate authorities to associate public keys
with certain users is known as ____.
a.
PGP
b.
PKI
c.
IPSec
d.
SSL
84. A ____ attack occurs when an Internet chat user sends commands
to a victim’s machine that causes the screen to fill with garbage characters
and requires the victim to terminate their chat sessions.
a.
phishing
b.
denial-of-service
c.
war driving
d.
flashing
85. A(n) ____________________ identifies an organization’s
security risks, levels of authority, designated security coordinator and team
members, responsibilities for each team member, and responsibilities for each
employee.
security policy
86. The combination of a public key and a private key is known as
a ____.
a.
key lock
b.
key frame
c.
key pair
d.
key set
87. ____ software searches
a node for open ports.
a.
Port scanner
b.
Authentication
c.
Phishing
d.
Sniffing
88. Encryption is the last means of defense against data theft.
a.
True
b.
False
89. A ____ attack occurs
when a hacker tries numerous possible character combinations to find the key
that will decrypt encrypted data.
a.
flashing
b.
dictionary
c.
brute force
d.
denial-of-service
90. In ____, both computers
verify the credentials of the other.
a.
mutual access
b.
mutual verification
c.
mutual authentication
d.
mutual authorization
91. Human errors, ignorance, and omissions cause more than half of
all security breaches sustained by networks.
a.
True
b.
False
92. ____________________ is
the use of an algorithm to scramble data into a format that can be read only by reversing the algorithm.
Encryption
93. A ____ main function is to examine packets and determine where
to direct them based on their Network layer addressing information.
a.
router’s
b.
proxy server’s
c.
switch’s
d.
gateway’s
94. A(n) ____________________ is a thorough examination of each
aspect of the network to determine how it might be compromised.
posture assessment
95. In a ____ attack, a person redirects or captures secure
transmissions as they occur.
a.
war driving
b.
man-in-the-middle
c.
phishing
d.
denial-of service
96. A NOS that contains a “backdoor” is an example of a risk
associated with ____.
a.
Internet access
b.
protocols and software
c.
people
d.
transmission and hardware
97. A ____ attack occurs when a hacker uses programs that try a
combination of a user ID and every word in a dictionary to gain access to the
network.
a.
brute force
b.
denial-of-service
c.
flashing
d.
dictionary
98. Network security is more often compromised “from the inside”
than from external sources.
a.
True
b.
False
99. A VPN ____ authenticates VPN clients and establishes tunnels
for VPN connections.
a.
concentrator
b.
router
c.
service
d.
certificate authority
100. A security policy should state exactly which hardware,
software, architecture, or protocols will be used to ensure security.
a.
True
b.
False
